28. Labelling of membrane spanning domain of any integral membrane protein in a given plasma membrane vesicle (without disrupting its structure) is successfully carried out by
(1) immunochemical methods.
(2) metabolic labelling with radioisotopes.
(3) hydrophobic photoaffinity labelling.
(4) limited proteolysis followed by metabolic labelling.
29. E. coli is being grown in a medium containing both glucose and galactose. On depletion of galactose, expression of β- galactoside will
(1) remain unchanged
(2) increase
(3) decrease
(4) initially decrease and then increase
30. Error-free repair of double strand breaks in DNA is accomplished by ?
(1) non-homologous end-joining.
(2) base excision repair.
(3) homologous recombination.
(4) mismatch repair.
31. The -COOH group of cellular amino acids can form which of the following bonds inside the cell?
(1) Ether and ester bonds.
(2) Ester and anhydride bonds.
(3) Amide and ether bonds.
(4) Amide and carboxylic anhydride bonds.
32. RNA interference is mediated by both siRNA and miRNA. Which one of the following statement about them is NOT true?
(1) Both siRNA and miRNA are processed by DICER.
(2) Both siRNA and-miRNA usually guide silencing of the same genetic loci from which they originate.
(3) miRNA is a natural molecule while siRNA is either natural or a synthetic one.
(4) miRNA, but not siRNA is processed by Drosha.
33. Following are some of the characteristics of MHC class I and class II molecules except one which is applicable only for MHC class I. Identify the appropriate statement ?
(1) They are expressed constitutively an all nucleated cells.
(2) They are glycosylated polypeptides with domain structure. .
(3) They are involved in presentation of antigen fragments to cells.
(4) They are expressed on surface membrane of B cells.
34. Which of the following bacteria has subcellular localization
in Iysosomes?
(1) Salmonella typhii.
(2) Streptococcus pneumoniae
(3) Vibrio cholerae
(4) Mycobacterium tuberculosis
35. Which one of the following best defines an oncogene?
(1) An oncogene never codes for a cell cycle protein, which promotes cell proliferation.
(2) Oncogenes are always involved in inherited forms of cancer.
(3) An oncogene codes for a protein that prevents a cell from undergoing apoptosis.
(4) An oncogene is a dominantly expressed mutated gene that renders a cell advantageous towards survival.
36. Which one of the following statements about receptor - enzyme is FALSE?
(1) A receptor - enzyme has an extracellular ligand binding domain, a transmembrane domain and an intracellular catalytic (enzyme) domain.
(2) Many types of receptor enzymes are found in animals.
(3) The signal transduction pathways of receptor - enzyme involve phosphorylation cascades.
(4) Receptor - enzymes interact directly with intracellular Gproteins.
37. Bones of vertebrates embryonic are derived from
(1) ectoderm (2) epiderm (3) mesoderm (4) endoderm
38. During development, if a cell has committed to a particular fate, it is said to be
(1) pluripotent (2) totipotent (3) determined (4) differentiated
39. The initial dorsal-ventral axis in amphibian embryos is determined by
(1) the point of sperm entry.
(2) gravity.
(3) the point of contact with the uterus.
(4) genetic differences in the cells.
40. Sperm cell behaviour during double fertilization in Arabidopsis can be stated as follows. Identify the INCORRECT statement:
(1) Pollen tube bursts and discharges sperm cells.
(2) Sperm cells produce pollen tubes and enter into female gametophyte.
(3) The receptive antipodal cells break down when pollen tube enters the female gametophyte.
(4) One sperm nucleus fuses with the egg cell and the other fuses with the central cells.
41. Rhizobial genes that participate in legume nodule formation are called nodulation (nod) genes. The nodD encoded protein
(1) is an acetyl transferase that adds a fatty acyl chain to the Nod factor.
(2) binds to the nod box and induces transcription of all nod genes.
(3) catalyzes the linkage of N-acetyl glucosamine residues.
(4) influences the host specificity of Rhizobium.
42. Which one of the following plant hormones use the twocomponent histidine kinase receptor system for signal transduction?
(1) Auxin (2) Gibberellin (3) Cytokinin (4) Abscisic acid
43. Which one of the following photoreceptors plays a role in day length perception and circadian rhythms?
(1) Zeitlupe family (2) Cryptochromes (3) Phototropins (4) UV Resistance locus 8
44. Which one of the following is the correct order of electron transport during light reaction in the thylakoid membrane of
chloroplast?
(1) P680 --> Cytochrome b6f -->--> PC --> PQ
(2) P680 --> PC --> Cytochrome b6f --> PQ
(3) P680 --> PQ --> PC --> Cytochrome b6f
(4) P680 --> PQ --> Cytochrome b6f --> PC
45. Insulin increases facilitated diffusion of glucose in muscle cells by:
(1) phosphorylation of glucose transporters.
(2) translocation of glucose transporter containing endosomes into the cell membrane.
(3) inhibition of the synthesis of mRNA for glucose transporters.
(4) dephosphorylation of glucose transporters.
46. The transport of fructose into the enterocytes is mediated by:
(1) sodium-dependent glucose transporter (SGLT 1).
(2) glucose transporter 5 (GLUT5).
(3) SGLT 2. (4) GLUT 4.
47. The cell bodies of sympathetic-preganglionic neurons are located in:
(1) Intermediolateral cell column of spinal cord
(2) Posterior cell column of spinal cord
(3) Celiac ganglion
(4) Paravertebral ganglion
48. The di- and tripeptides are transported in the enterocytes by peptide transporter I that
(1) Na+ (2) Ca++ (3) H+ (4) Cl-
49. Which one of the following statements is INCORRECT?
(1) Quantitative inheritance results in a range of measurable phenotypes for a polygenic trait.
(2) Polygenic traits often demonstrate continuous variation.
(3) Certain alleles of quantitative trait loci (QTL) have an additive effect on the character/trait.
(4) Alleles governing quantitative traits do not segregate and assort independently.
50. A mouse carrying two alleles of insulin-like growth factor II (lgf2) is normal in size; whereas a mouse that carries two
mutant alleles lacking the growth factor is dwarf. The size of a heterozygous mouse carrying one normal and one mutant
allele depends on the parental origin of the wild type allele. Such pattern of inheritance is known as
(1) Sex-linked inheritance (2) Genomic imprinting (3) Gene-envr interaction (4) Cytoplasm inheritance
51. Which one of the following statements is INCORRECT?
(1) Loss of genetic variation occurs within a small population due to genetic drift. .
(2) The number of deleterious alleles present in the gene pool of a population is called the genetic load.
(3) Genetic erosion is a reduction in levels of homozygosity.
(4) Inbreeding depression results from increased homozygosity for deleterious alleles.
52. What is the genotype of a male Drosophila fly that has yellow body colour and red eyes. Brown (Y+) is dominant over
yellow (Y) and red (W+) is dominant over white (W). Both are carried on X chromosome.
(1) XW+YY (2) XWYY (3) XWY+Y (4) XWY+XWY+Y
53. Which of the following statements is NOT true regarding the closer affinity of Archaea to Eukarya than to Bacteria?
(1) Both Archaea and Eukarya lack peptido-glycan in their cell walls.
(2) The initiator amino acid for protein synthesis is methionine in both Archaea and Eukarya.
(3) Histones associated with DNA are absent in both Archaea and Eukarya.
(4) In both Archaea and Eukarya the RNA polymerase is of several kinds.
> 54. Match the following larval forms with phyla that they occur
in
Larva Phylum
(a) Amphiblastula (i) Mollusca
(b) Nauplius (ii) Echinodermata
(c) Glochidium (iii) Porifera
(d) Bipinnaria (iv) Arthropoda
(v) Annelida
(1) a - iii, b - iv, c - i, d - ii (2) a - iv, b - iii, c - i, d - v (3) a-ii, b-v, c-iv, d-i (4) a - v, b - i, c - ii, d - iii
55. Which of the following National parks has the highest density of tigers among protected area in the world?
(1) Jim Corbett (2) Kaziranga (3) Keoladeo Ghana (4) Manas
56. Which of the following is NOT a prediction arising out of Wilson-MacArthur's -Theory of Island Biogeography?
(1) The number of species on an island should increase with its size/area.
(2) The number of speies should decrease with increasing distance of the island from the source pool.
(3) The turnover of species should be common and frequent.
(4) Species richness on an island should be related to its average distance to the neighbouring islands.
57. During which of the following major mass extinction events, over 95% of the marine species disappeared from the planet
Earth?
(1) Ordovician (2) Devonian (3) Permian (4) Triassic
58. Which of the following global hotspots of biodiversity has the highest number of endemic plants and vertebrates?
(1) Sundaland (2) Tropical Andes(3) Brazil's Atlantic Forest (4) Mesoamerican forests
59. For a population growing exponentially with a growth rate r, its population doubling time is ?
(1) (N0 x 2) (2) ln 2/r (3) λ ln 2 (4) ln r X 2
60. Fossils of the same species of fresh water reptiles have been found in South America and Africa. Based on the current understanding. Which of the following is the best possible explanation for this pattern?
(1) The same species originated and evolved independently in these two places.
(2) Species migrated from Africa to establish new populations in South America. ,
(3) Species migrated from South America to establish new populations in Africa.
(4) South America and Africa were joined at some point in Earth's history.
61. In which ecosystem is the autotroph-fixed energy likely to reach the primary carnivore level in the shortest time? '
(1) Temperate deciduous forest
(2) Grassland
(3) Ocean
(4) Tropical rain forest
62. The utilization or consumption efficiency of herbivores is highest in ?
(1) plankton communities of ocean waters.
(2) mature temperate forests.
(3) managed grasslands.
(4) managed rangelands.
63. Which of the following is NOT an attribute of a species that makes it vulnerable to extinction?
(1) Specialized diet
(2) Low dispersal ability
(3) Low trophic status
(4) Variable population density
64. TILLING is a reverse genetics approach used in functional genomics. Which' one of the following is used for TILLING?
(1) T-DNA tagging by Agrobacterium-mediated transformation.
(2) Transposon tagging using Ac/Ds elements.
(3) Mutagenesis with ethylmethane sulphonate.
(4) Protoplast transformation by electroporation.
65. Which one of the following will be observed when auxin to cytokinin ratio is increased in the culture medium during
organogenesis from tobacco pith callus?
(1) Adventitious roots will form.
(2) Adventitious shoot will form.
(3) There will be no root formation.
(4) There will be no shoot formation.
66. Which of the following is wild relative of wheat?
(1) Triticum monococcum (2) Triticum compactum (3) Triticum vulgare (4) Triticum boeoticum
67. A and B are two enantiomeric helical peptides. Their chirality can be determined by recording their
(1) circular dichroism spectrum.
(2) UV spectrum.
(3) fluorescence spectrum.
(4) Edman sequencing.
68. The use of Kruskal Wallis test is most appropriate in which of these cases?
(1) There are more than two groups and each group is normally distributed.
(2) There are more than two groups and the distribution in each group is not normal.
(3) There are two groups and each group is normally distributed.
(4) There are two groups and the distribution in each group is not normal.
69. Which one of the following can be analysed using Surface Plasmon Resonance method?
(1) Radiolabelled DNA probes.
(2) Protein structure.
(3) Optical density of a solution.
(4) Label-free bimolecular interaction.
70. Which one of the following statements is correct foramplified-fragment length polymorphism (AFLP)?
(1) PCR using a combination of random and gene-specific primers.
(2) PCR amplification followed by digestion with restriction enzymes.
(3) Digestion of DNA with restriction enzymes followed by one PCR step.
(4) Digestion of DNA with restriction enzymes followed by two PCR steps
(1) immunochemical methods.
(2) metabolic labelling with radioisotopes.
(3) hydrophobic photoaffinity labelling.
(4) limited proteolysis followed by metabolic labelling.
29. E. coli is being grown in a medium containing both glucose and galactose. On depletion of galactose, expression of β- galactoside will
(1) remain unchanged
(2) increase
(3) decrease
(4) initially decrease and then increase
30. Error-free repair of double strand breaks in DNA is accomplished by ?
(1) non-homologous end-joining.
(2) base excision repair.
(3) homologous recombination.
(4) mismatch repair.
31. The -COOH group of cellular amino acids can form which of the following bonds inside the cell?
(1) Ether and ester bonds.
(2) Ester and anhydride bonds.
(3) Amide and ether bonds.
(4) Amide and carboxylic anhydride bonds.
32. RNA interference is mediated by both siRNA and miRNA. Which one of the following statement about them is NOT true?
(1) Both siRNA and miRNA are processed by DICER.
(2) Both siRNA and-miRNA usually guide silencing of the same genetic loci from which they originate.
(3) miRNA is a natural molecule while siRNA is either natural or a synthetic one.
(4) miRNA, but not siRNA is processed by Drosha.
33. Following are some of the characteristics of MHC class I and class II molecules except one which is applicable only for MHC class I. Identify the appropriate statement ?
(1) They are expressed constitutively an all nucleated cells.
(2) They are glycosylated polypeptides with domain structure. .
(3) They are involved in presentation of antigen fragments to cells.
(4) They are expressed on surface membrane of B cells.
34. Which of the following bacteria has subcellular localization
in Iysosomes?
(1) Salmonella typhii.
(2) Streptococcus pneumoniae
(3) Vibrio cholerae
(4) Mycobacterium tuberculosis
35. Which one of the following best defines an oncogene?
(1) An oncogene never codes for a cell cycle protein, which promotes cell proliferation.
(2) Oncogenes are always involved in inherited forms of cancer.
(3) An oncogene codes for a protein that prevents a cell from undergoing apoptosis.
(4) An oncogene is a dominantly expressed mutated gene that renders a cell advantageous towards survival.
36. Which one of the following statements about receptor - enzyme is FALSE?
(1) A receptor - enzyme has an extracellular ligand binding domain, a transmembrane domain and an intracellular catalytic (enzyme) domain.
(2) Many types of receptor enzymes are found in animals.
(3) The signal transduction pathways of receptor - enzyme involve phosphorylation cascades.
(4) Receptor - enzymes interact directly with intracellular Gproteins.
37. Bones of vertebrates embryonic are derived from
(1) ectoderm (2) epiderm (3) mesoderm (4) endoderm
38. During development, if a cell has committed to a particular fate, it is said to be
(1) pluripotent (2) totipotent (3) determined (4) differentiated
39. The initial dorsal-ventral axis in amphibian embryos is determined by
(1) the point of sperm entry.
(2) gravity.
(3) the point of contact with the uterus.
(4) genetic differences in the cells.
40. Sperm cell behaviour during double fertilization in Arabidopsis can be stated as follows. Identify the INCORRECT statement:
(1) Pollen tube bursts and discharges sperm cells.
(2) Sperm cells produce pollen tubes and enter into female gametophyte.
(3) The receptive antipodal cells break down when pollen tube enters the female gametophyte.
(4) One sperm nucleus fuses with the egg cell and the other fuses with the central cells.
41. Rhizobial genes that participate in legume nodule formation are called nodulation (nod) genes. The nodD encoded protein
(1) is an acetyl transferase that adds a fatty acyl chain to the Nod factor.
(2) binds to the nod box and induces transcription of all nod genes.
(3) catalyzes the linkage of N-acetyl glucosamine residues.
(4) influences the host specificity of Rhizobium.
42. Which one of the following plant hormones use the twocomponent histidine kinase receptor system for signal transduction?
(1) Auxin (2) Gibberellin (3) Cytokinin (4) Abscisic acid
43. Which one of the following photoreceptors plays a role in day length perception and circadian rhythms?
(1) Zeitlupe family (2) Cryptochromes (3) Phototropins (4) UV Resistance locus 8
44. Which one of the following is the correct order of electron transport during light reaction in the thylakoid membrane of
chloroplast?
(1) P680 --> Cytochrome b6f -->--> PC --> PQ
(2) P680 --> PC --> Cytochrome b6f --> PQ
(3) P680 --> PQ --> PC --> Cytochrome b6f
(4) P680 --> PQ --> Cytochrome b6f --> PC
45. Insulin increases facilitated diffusion of glucose in muscle cells by:
(1) phosphorylation of glucose transporters.
(2) translocation of glucose transporter containing endosomes into the cell membrane.
(3) inhibition of the synthesis of mRNA for glucose transporters.
(4) dephosphorylation of glucose transporters.
46. The transport of fructose into the enterocytes is mediated by:
(1) sodium-dependent glucose transporter (SGLT 1).
(2) glucose transporter 5 (GLUT5).
(3) SGLT 2. (4) GLUT 4.
47. The cell bodies of sympathetic-preganglionic neurons are located in:
(1) Intermediolateral cell column of spinal cord
(2) Posterior cell column of spinal cord
(3) Celiac ganglion
(4) Paravertebral ganglion
48. The di- and tripeptides are transported in the enterocytes by peptide transporter I that
(1) Na+ (2) Ca++ (3) H+ (4) Cl-
49. Which one of the following statements is INCORRECT?
(1) Quantitative inheritance results in a range of measurable phenotypes for a polygenic trait.
(2) Polygenic traits often demonstrate continuous variation.
(3) Certain alleles of quantitative trait loci (QTL) have an additive effect on the character/trait.
(4) Alleles governing quantitative traits do not segregate and assort independently.
50. A mouse carrying two alleles of insulin-like growth factor II (lgf2) is normal in size; whereas a mouse that carries two
mutant alleles lacking the growth factor is dwarf. The size of a heterozygous mouse carrying one normal and one mutant
allele depends on the parental origin of the wild type allele. Such pattern of inheritance is known as
(1) Sex-linked inheritance (2) Genomic imprinting (3) Gene-envr interaction (4) Cytoplasm inheritance
51. Which one of the following statements is INCORRECT?
(1) Loss of genetic variation occurs within a small population due to genetic drift. .
(2) The number of deleterious alleles present in the gene pool of a population is called the genetic load.
(3) Genetic erosion is a reduction in levels of homozygosity.
(4) Inbreeding depression results from increased homozygosity for deleterious alleles.
52. What is the genotype of a male Drosophila fly that has yellow body colour and red eyes. Brown (Y+) is dominant over
yellow (Y) and red (W+) is dominant over white (W). Both are carried on X chromosome.
(1) XW+YY (2) XWYY (3) XWY+Y (4) XWY+XWY+Y
53. Which of the following statements is NOT true regarding the closer affinity of Archaea to Eukarya than to Bacteria?
(1) Both Archaea and Eukarya lack peptido-glycan in their cell walls.
(2) The initiator amino acid for protein synthesis is methionine in both Archaea and Eukarya.
(3) Histones associated with DNA are absent in both Archaea and Eukarya.
(4) In both Archaea and Eukarya the RNA polymerase is of several kinds.
> 54. Match the following larval forms with phyla that they occur
in
Larva Phylum
(a) Amphiblastula (i) Mollusca
(b) Nauplius (ii) Echinodermata
(c) Glochidium (iii) Porifera
(d) Bipinnaria (iv) Arthropoda
(v) Annelida
(1) a - iii, b - iv, c - i, d - ii (2) a - iv, b - iii, c - i, d - v (3) a-ii, b-v, c-iv, d-i (4) a - v, b - i, c - ii, d - iii
55. Which of the following National parks has the highest density of tigers among protected area in the world?
(1) Jim Corbett (2) Kaziranga (3) Keoladeo Ghana (4) Manas
56. Which of the following is NOT a prediction arising out of Wilson-MacArthur's -Theory of Island Biogeography?
(1) The number of species on an island should increase with its size/area.
(2) The number of speies should decrease with increasing distance of the island from the source pool.
(3) The turnover of species should be common and frequent.
(4) Species richness on an island should be related to its average distance to the neighbouring islands.
57. During which of the following major mass extinction events, over 95% of the marine species disappeared from the planet
Earth?
(1) Ordovician (2) Devonian (3) Permian (4) Triassic
58. Which of the following global hotspots of biodiversity has the highest number of endemic plants and vertebrates?
(1) Sundaland (2) Tropical Andes(3) Brazil's Atlantic Forest (4) Mesoamerican forests
59. For a population growing exponentially with a growth rate r, its population doubling time is ?
(1) (N0 x 2) (2) ln 2/r (3) λ ln 2 (4) ln r X 2
60. Fossils of the same species of fresh water reptiles have been found in South America and Africa. Based on the current understanding. Which of the following is the best possible explanation for this pattern?
(1) The same species originated and evolved independently in these two places.
(2) Species migrated from Africa to establish new populations in South America. ,
(3) Species migrated from South America to establish new populations in Africa.
(4) South America and Africa were joined at some point in Earth's history.
61. In which ecosystem is the autotroph-fixed energy likely to reach the primary carnivore level in the shortest time? '
(1) Temperate deciduous forest
(2) Grassland
(3) Ocean
(4) Tropical rain forest
62. The utilization or consumption efficiency of herbivores is highest in ?
(1) plankton communities of ocean waters.
(2) mature temperate forests.
(3) managed grasslands.
(4) managed rangelands.
63. Which of the following is NOT an attribute of a species that makes it vulnerable to extinction?
(1) Specialized diet
(2) Low dispersal ability
(3) Low trophic status
(4) Variable population density
64. TILLING is a reverse genetics approach used in functional genomics. Which' one of the following is used for TILLING?
(1) T-DNA tagging by Agrobacterium-mediated transformation.
(2) Transposon tagging using Ac/Ds elements.
(3) Mutagenesis with ethylmethane sulphonate.
(4) Protoplast transformation by electroporation.
65. Which one of the following will be observed when auxin to cytokinin ratio is increased in the culture medium during
organogenesis from tobacco pith callus?
(1) Adventitious roots will form.
(2) Adventitious shoot will form.
(3) There will be no root formation.
(4) There will be no shoot formation.
66. Which of the following is wild relative of wheat?
(1) Triticum monococcum (2) Triticum compactum (3) Triticum vulgare (4) Triticum boeoticum
67. A and B are two enantiomeric helical peptides. Their chirality can be determined by recording their
(1) circular dichroism spectrum.
(2) UV spectrum.
(3) fluorescence spectrum.
(4) Edman sequencing.
68. The use of Kruskal Wallis test is most appropriate in which of these cases?
(1) There are more than two groups and each group is normally distributed.
(2) There are more than two groups and the distribution in each group is not normal.
(3) There are two groups and each group is normally distributed.
(4) There are two groups and the distribution in each group is not normal.
69. Which one of the following can be analysed using Surface Plasmon Resonance method?
(1) Radiolabelled DNA probes.
(2) Protein structure.
(3) Optical density of a solution.
(4) Label-free bimolecular interaction.
70. Which one of the following statements is correct foramplified-fragment length polymorphism (AFLP)?
(1) PCR using a combination of random and gene-specific primers.
(2) PCR amplification followed by digestion with restriction enzymes.
(3) Digestion of DNA with restriction enzymes followed by one PCR step.
(4) Digestion of DNA with restriction enzymes followed by two PCR steps
1 Comments
Its corbett 2o8 tigers
ReplyDelete